In response to his video asking atheists to challenge his assumptions, enticingly phrased as questions, here are my answers. I chose the form of an open letter, because I felt addressed by the questions and it seemed like the natural way to write this post. Of course I’m also interested in what third parties think.
Dear jdelphiki42,
I am going to consider each question separately. I apologize for not giving definitions up front, but they’re at the points where I considered them most relevant.
Does God’s non-existence imply pure materialism?
No, it most certainly doesn’t, just as religion doesn’t imply some form of anti-materialism. The reason for this is simple: it is possible that God created or is lord over a materialistic world, and it is possible to deny the existence of God and still have a dualistic or esoteric worldview, or some other anti-materialist notion. For example, you could believe that the human spirit is the entity that guides everything in the world and that matter is only secondary to it, if it truly exists at all. If you think God doesn’t exist, you’d still be an atheist even though such a view is not materialist.
History confirms that there is no automatic connection between the two. Most importantly, materialism grew from within christianity, primarily from 18th-century deists. The so-called ‘mechanistic worldview’ (often erroneously ascribed to Newton, but more developed under influence of his work by others) was basically materialistic, even if it did acknowledge God. At the same time, in the 19th century, modernists and spinozists would sometimes move away from religion and materialism through pantheism, which is the opposite of deism. An example would be German biologist Ernst Haeckel, who claimed that atoms had souls.
I want to make an adjustment to your use of the term ‘materialism’. I crudely define materialism as the idea that matter is the only thing that exists and within which all non-material phenomena are virtually present. This does not mean that everything is caused by movement of sub-atomic particles – that would be a specific kind of materialism, namely ontological reductionism. Within materialism, it is thinkable to hold an anti-reductionist position, which I will call holism. This typically entails recognition of processes on certain reductionist ‘levels’. For example, you may say that all my decisions are ’caused’ by collisions of subatomic particles, but if I decide to turn on a particle collider, the collisions are ’caused’ by my decisions. One approach to this is to say that neither causation is more true than the other. Note that this is a very short description of a position that is not my own, so I am doing it terrible injustice and for anti-reductionist philosophy I recommend a book by Stuart Kauffman (At Home in the Universe) and I’m also interested in Nancey Murphy’s Theology in the Age of Scientific Reasoning. When I label such authors as ‘holist’ it is purely to distinguish them from reductionists.
Does materialism allow for free will, or is it all inevitable?
Ontological reductionism, which is the kind of materialism you refer to, is not automatically deterministic. It could be indeterministic. This means at the very least that ‘inevitability’ is not automatic, but that doesn’t save the notion of free will.
On the concept of free will there are two very good lectures on youtube which are both in favour of reductionism but against the kind (in)determinism that excludes free will (more precisely: against the dichotomy). Daniel Dennett argues why, according to him, free will is possible in a deterministic universe. Sysiphusredeemed argues that the question of free will dissolves if the question is deconstructed into bits that can be handled by neurology. Both men make excellent points and the simplified conclusion of their lectures is that your question can be answered with ‘Yes, materialism allows for free will’.
What implications does determinism have for epistemology?
This is the most complex matter and my motivation for tackling your question in the first place. In your explication, you introduce the idea of everything being caused by moving particles (ontological reductionism) again, basically repeating some arguments concerning free will. But this is about epistemology and I think that this makes for a different case.
Coincidentally, I’ve been thinking about the issue since Thunderf00t made a video talking about the ‘rationalist’ community. This made me wonder: is Thunderf00t a rationalist? Actually, I don’t think he is. This is because materialism, in a broad sense, both holistic and reductionist, implies irrationalism.
When we apply rational reasoning, we rely on understanding things. When has understanding been achieved? In a materialist universe, this has been achieved through a cognitive process; the brain does the understanding, reductionist or not. However, when we claim to understand a logical conclusion, we submit ourselves to a law that we consider to be larger than our single minds. We assume that the laws of logic are true and that we cannot change them. We also assume that once we see them, their reflection on our minds causes the sensation of understanding, the feeling of ‘I get it’.
In a materialist universe, this would mean that our brain contains an accurate and objective ’snapshot’ of reality, and that our language for describing that ’snapshot’ is simply an impartial translation. Language would transform the snapshot into a second representation that we can then communicate. This series of events has been severely criticised by philosophers, and I don’t think it’s correct.
One argument I would bring in is that our brain and its cognitive functions were never developed in accordance with impartial logic. They were developed by evolution and aimed at making us survive and reproduce. We know that we have tendencies hardwired into our brain to make us change what we see into a more coherent picture, even when that is not justified. Our sensation that logic is correct is not guaranteed within a materialist universe. The ‘I get it’ sensation can be a hardwired adaptation that takes some shortcuts over reality and that at times misleads us.
There are examples of this. In his lecture, Sysiphusredeemed gives the example of a student who explains the properties of opium by claiming it has a ‘dormative’ quality. What is not touched on, however, is that the student truly believes he understands why opium makes us sleep. This is no small matter; all science contains some measure of this reformulating of problems to make scientists think they understand problems. Some epistemologists of the 20th century have called attention to the ‘psychology of research’, i.e. the fact that understanding is at least partially reliant on cognitive processes.
According to materialism, these cognitive processes are taking place within matter; shaped by evolution, caused by moving particles, if you wish. It doesn’t really matter as a part of what principles of causation you recognise it. In the end it comes down to the sensation of understanding, the feeling one has understood something, rather than the rational thought that our brain and our language are a reliable depiction of impartial logic.
That is why I think materialism implies irrationalism. This doesn’t mean materialists can no longer use rational arguments; rationality is common even among anti-rationalist philosophies. Rather, I would define irrationalism as the idea that there is no true rational mind behind our behaviour. It’s not a comforting thought and surely not a done deal for me either, but I hope it gives you an atheist viewpoint of the kind you were looking for.




